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SOCIAL SCIENCE

(213)

Time: 3 Hours]                                                                                                                                          [ Maximum Marks: 100

Note:

(i) This question paper consists of 51 questions in all.

(ii) All questions are compulsory.

(iii) Marks are given against each question.

(iv) Section – A consists of

(a) Q.No. 1 to 20 – Multiple Choice Type Questions (MCQs) carrying 1 mark each. Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given in each of these questions. An internal choice has been provided in some of these questions. You have to do only one of the given choices in such questions.

(b) Q.No. 21 to 35 – Objective type questions carrying two marks each (with 2 sub parts of 1 mark each). Attempt these questions as per the instructions given for each of the questions.

Section – B consists of

(c) Q.No. 36 to 41 – Very Short Answer type questions carrying 2 marks each to be answered in the range of 30 – 50 words. Attempt these questions as per the instructions given for each of the questions.

(d) Q.No. 42 to 47 – Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each to be answered in the range of 50 – 80 words.

(e) Q.No. 48 to 49 – Skill (Map) based questions carrying 4 marks each. (Alternative questions are given in lieu of map based questions for visually impaired students.)

(f) Q.No. 50 to 51 – Long Answer type questions carrying 6 marks each to be answered in 80 – 120 words.

 

(1) Answers of all questions are to be given in the Answer-Book given to you. (2) 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be distributed at 2:15 p.m. From 2:15 p.m. to 2:30 p.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the Answer-Book during this period.

SECTION – A

1. Europe witnessed profound changes in which of the following area during Renaissance? 1

(A) Cultural sphere                                      (B) Economic sphere

(C) Political sphere                                      (D) Religious sphere

Ans. (A) Cultural sphere

OR

Which one of the following period is associated with Renaissance in Europe?

(A) Period of darkness                               (B) Period of scientific inquiry

(C) Period of ignorance                                             (D) Period of irrationality

Ans. (B) Period of scientific inquiry

2. Which of the following periods of British history is known as the period of Industrial Revolution ? 1

(A) 1450 – 1550              (B) 1550 – 1650              (C) 1650 – 1750              (D) 1750 – 1850

 

Ans. (D) 1750–1850

OR

Which one of the following systems was developed in England during Industrial Revolution ?                    1

(A) Factory System                                                     (B) Barter System

(C) Feudal System                                                       (D) Mansabdari System

Ans. (A) Factory System

3. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Das Capital’ ? 1

(A) Otto Van Bismarck                                              (B) Kaiser William I

(C) Karl Marx                                                                (D) Count Cavour

Ans. (C) Karl Marx

4. Which one of the following was the first international organisation set up in 1920 ? 1

(A) The Red Cross Society                                        (B) The Amnesty International

(C) The United Nations Organisation                   (D) The League of Nations

Ans. (D) The League of Nations

5. Who amongst the following was the leader of Mysore in the Anglo-Mysore war ? 1

(A) Peshwa Baji Rau                                                  (B) Tipu Sultan

(C) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq                                   (D) Nawab Wajid Ali Shah

Ans. (B) Tipu Sultan

OR

Who amongst the following British official introduced Permanent Settlement in Bengal and Bihar in 1793 ?

(A) Wellsley                     (B) Cornwallis                 (C) Dalhousie                   (D) Mountbatten

Ans. (B) Cornwallis

6. Which one of the following Movements started in 1920 in India ? 1

(A) Civil Disobedience Movement                         (B) Quit India Movement

(C) Non-Cooperation Movement                           (D) Civil Rights Movement

Ans. (C) Non-Cooperation Movement

7. Generally on which of the following height Upper air currents or Jet streams blow ? 1

(A) 6,000 meters above the sea level                   (B) 8,000 meters above the sea level

(C) 10,000 meters above the sea level                 (D) 12,000 meters above the sea level

Ans. (C) 10,000 meters above the sea level

8. In the given outline map of India, identify the Mountain peak marked as ‘A’. 1

(A) Kanchenjanga          (B) Mt. Everest                (C) Nanda Devi               (D) Nanga Parvat

For Visually Impaired

Which one of the following mountain ranges run parallel to the Bay of Bengal?

(A) Satpura Range                                        (B) Aravalli Range

(C) Eastern Ghats                                          (D) Western Ghats

 

Ans. (A) Kanchenjanga – The map points to a location in the northeastern part of India. The mountain peak marked as ‘A’ appears to align with Kanchenjanga, which is located in Sikkim and is one of the highest peaks in the world.

 

Ans. (C) Eastern Ghats – The mountain range that runs parallel to the Bay of Bengal is the Eastern Ghats.

 

9. On the given outline map, identify two rivers flowing Eastwards of Eastern Ghats : 1

(A) Mahanadi and Krishna                        (B) Brahmaputra and Hugli

(C) Son and Kosi                                           (D) Narmada and Tapti

For visually impaired candidates.

 

Which of the following is a Westward flowing river ?

(A) Mahi                            (B) Narmada                   (C) Ganga                         (D) Yamuna

 

Ans. (A) Mahanadi and Krishna – The two rivers flowing eastward of the Eastern Ghats, as shown in the map, are Mahanadi and Krishna. Both rivers originate in central India and flow towards the Bay of Bengal.

 

Ans. (B) Narmada – The Narmada river is a westward-flowing river, unlike most rivers in India, which flow eastward. It flows westwards into the Arabian Sea.

 

10. On the given outline map of India identify the hill of the Peninsular plateau marked as ‘A’. 1

(A) Anamalai Hills                        (B) Mahendragiri Hills                (C) Kollimalai Hills                (D) Satmala Hills

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For Visually Impaired candidates

Which one of the following plateaus is a part of Central Highlands ?

(A) Tibet Plateau            (B) Deccan Plateau        (C) Malwa Plateau                        (D) Satpura Plateau

Ans. (A) Anamalai Hills.

Ans. (C) Malwa Plateau – Explanation:

• Tibet Plateau: Located in Central Asia, outside India.
• Deccan Plateau: Lies in southern India, not part of the Central Highlands.
• Malwa Plateau: Part of the Central Highlands, located in western Madhya Pradesh and southeastern Rajasthan.
• Satpura Plateau: Although associated with the Satpura range, it is not categorized as part of the Central Highlands.

The Malwa Plateau is a significant portion of the Central Highlands.

Nios Last Year Solved Question Paper Social Science 213 Class 10 – https:/product-category/nios-exam

11. On the given outline map of India, identify the mountain range marked as ‘M’. 1

(A) Shiwalik Range                       (B) Aravalli Range                        (C) Gir Range                   (D) Satpura Range

Note : The following question is only for the visually impaired candidates in lieu of Q.11

Which of the following is the mountain range of Rajasthan and near about area ?

(A) Shiwalik Range                       (B) Aravalli Range                         (C) Gir Range                  (D) Satpura Range

Ans. (C) Gir Range

Ans. (B) Aravalli Range

Explanation:

• Shiwalik Range: Located in the Himalayan foothills, not in Rajasthan.
• Aravalli Range: A prominent mountain range that runs across Rajasthan and extends into Haryana and Gujarat. It is the oldest mountain range in India and dominates the geography of Rajasthan.
• Gir Range: Found in Gujarat, not in Rajasthan.
• Satpura Range: Located in central India, primarily in Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

The Aravalli Range is the mountain range associated with Rajasthan and its surrounding areas.

Nios Last Year Solved Question Paper Social Science 213 Class 10

12. What a right means to a person ? Select the right term from below : 1

(A) Claim            (B) Authority                   (C) Property                     (D) Liberty

 

Ans. (A) Claim

OR

What a duty means to someone ? Select the right term from below :

(A) Empowered              (B) Required                    (C) Acquired                     (D) Desired

Ans. (B) Required

 

13. The Fundamental Rights are : 1

(A) Justifiable                  (B) Justiciable                  (C) Liable                          (D) Fallible

Ans. (B) Justiciable

OR

In which of the following years ‘The Right to Education’ was added by introducing a new Article 21A in the Chapter of Fundamental Rights by 86th Constitutional Amendment ?

(A) 2000                            (B) 2001                            (C) 2002                           (D) 2003

Ans. (C) 2002

 

14. Appointment of Advocate General comes under which powers of a Governor of an Indian State ? 1

(A) Executive powers   (B) Legislative powers (C) Financial powers (D) Discretionary powers

 

Ans. (A) Executive powers

OR

 

Appointment of members of State Finance Commission comes under which powers of a Governor of an Indian State?               1

(A) Legislative powers                (B) Financial powers    (C) Discretionary powers (D) Executive powers

 

Ans. (D) Executive powers

15. Who presides over the meetings of Lok Sabha ? 1

(A) President of India   (B) Speaker       (C) Deputy Chairman    (D) Vice President of India

 

Ans. (B) Speaker

Nios Last Year Solved Question Paper Social Science 213 Class 10

16. Who said, “Democracy is a Government, Of the people, For the people and By the people” ? 1

(A) Abraham Lincoln    (B) Mahatma Gandhi     (C) Leo Tolstoy               (D) Subhash Chandra Bose

 

Ans. (A) Abraham Lincoln

 

17. Which of the following is not a must for a Democracy ? 1

(A) Participation of the people                (B) Compulsory Military Service

(C) People’s Satisfaction                            (D) Political and Social Equality

 

Ans. (B) Compulsory Military Service

 

18. Consider the following : 1

 

(i)               Gross Domestic Product                               (ii) Life Expectancy (ii)            Literacy                                                            (iv) Levels of Employment

 

The indicators written above are used to measure which type of underwritten development ?

(A) Human development                           (B) Socio-economic development

(C) Social development                              (D) Economic development

Ans. (B) Socio-economic development.

The indicators listed — Gross Domestic Product (GDP), life expectancy, literacy, and levels of employment — are used to measure socio-economic development, as they reflect both the economic status and social well-being of a population.

19. Which one of the following countries was a main participant in the First and Second World Wars ? 1

(A) Austria        (B) Turkey         (C) Germany     (D) Denmark

 

Ans. (C) Germany.

Germany was a main participant in both the First and Second World Wars. It was one of the Central Powers in World War I and a major Axis power in World War II.

20. Consider the following : 1

 

(i) Freedom from military dangers                                   (ii) Freedom from hunger (iii) Freedom from armed conflicts                                  (iv) Freedom from environmental degradation

 

Which of the above written freedoms are new understandings of ‘security’?

(A) (i) and (ii)                  (B) (i) and(iii)                 (C) (i) and (iv)                 (D) (ii) and (iv)

Ans. (D) (ii) and (iv)

21. Fill in the blanks: 2

The spirit of __________ also found expression in the field of art and literature. The greatest achievements of renaissance artists were in the field of __________.

 

Ans. The spirit of humanism also found expression in the field of art and literature. The greatest achievements of Renaissance artists were in the field of painting.

OR

The spirit of __________ also marks the rise of Nationalism in Europe. People now began to free themselves of medieval __________ restrictions and bonds.

 

Ans. The spirit of liberalism also marks the rise of Nationalism in Europe. People now began to free themselves of medieval feudal restrictions and bonds.

22. Answer any two questions.                                                                                                                                                 1. Why did Europeans discover new lands during Renaissance Period ?

Ans. During the Renaissance, Europeans discovered new lands due to a combination of factors. The period’s intellectual curiosity and advancements in navigation and shipbuilding allowed for longer, safer voyages. Economic motivations, such as seeking new trade routes to acquire valuable goods like spices and gold, played a key role. Additionally, the desire to spread Christianity and the competition between European powers fueled exploration. These factors together drove the Age of Discovery, expanding Europe’s influence across the globe.

2. Why did Europeans want to trade with East during Industrial Revolution ?

Ans. During the Industrial Revolution, Europeans sought trade with the East for several reasons. The East provided valuable goods like tea, spices, silk, and cotton, which were in high demand in Europe. European industries needed raw materials such as cotton and opium to fuel production. Additionally, the East offered new markets for European manufactured goods. Trading with the East was also seen as a way to enhance national wealth and global power, making it a key part of Europe’s industrial expansion.

3. Why did Europeans search direct trade routes for East during Industrial Revolution ?

Ans. During the Industrial Revolution, Europeans sought direct trade routes to the East to bypass intermediaries, such as Ottoman and Arab merchants, who increased costs. Direct routes would make trade faster, cheaper, and more efficient, benefiting European industries that needed raw materials like cotton and opium. Additionally, direct access to Eastern goods like spices, tea, and silk was vital. Establishing direct routes also allowed European powers to enhance their economic and geopolitical influence, securing dominance in global trade.

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23. Answer any two questions. 2

24. Why is the Revolution in Britain referred to as the Glorious Revolution ?

Ans. The Revolution in Britain is referred to as the Glorious Revolution because it was relatively peaceful compared to other revolutions. In 1688, King James II was overthrown and replaced by his daughter Mary II and her husband William of Orange, who took the throne. The revolution involved little bloodshed and was largely accomplished without widespread violence. It was also significant because it led to the establishment of constitutional monarchy, limiting the power of the monarchy and enhancing parliamentary authority, which was seen as a victory for civil liberties and political stability.

2. Why did the King James II of England have to leave his throne ?

Ans. King James II of England was forced to leave his throne in 1688 due to several factors:

1. Religious Tensions: James II, a Catholic, tried to promote Catholicism in a predominantly Protestant England. His attempts to appoint Catholics to key positions and repeal anti-Catholic laws angered many, including Protestants and political leaders.
2. Autocratic Rule: James II attempted to centralize power, bypassing Parliament and making decisions without their consent. This led to fears of absolute monarchy.
3. The Birth of a Catholic Heir: When James’ Catholic son was born in 1688, it created the prospect of a Catholic dynasty, which alarmed many Protestants who feared the return of Catholic rule.
4. Invitation to William of Orange: A group of Protestant nobles, known as the “Immortal Seven,” invited William of Orange, a Protestant and James’ son-in-law, to invade England. William’s landing with an army in 1688 led to widespread support, and James fled to France, effectively abdicating.

This event, known as the Glorious Revolution, led to the ascension of William and Mary, ensuring Protestant rule and limiting the powers of the monarchy.

3. Why did King James II lose support of his countrymen ?

Ans. King James II lost support due to several factors. His promotion of Catholicism in a Protestant country, including appointing Catholics to key positions, angered many. His attempts to rule without Parliament and centralize power led to fears of absolute monarchy. The birth of a Catholic heir in 1688 further alarmed Protestants, as it threatened a Catholic dynasty. These actions, combined with opposition from political leaders, led to his loss of support, culminating in the Glorious Revolution and his abdication.

24. (a) Why did Raja Ram Mohan Roy oppose Sati Pratha ? 2

Ans. Raja Ram Mohan Roy opposed the practice of Sati (the act of a widow self-immolating on her husband’s funeral pyre) because he believed it was inhumane, cruel, and a violation of women’s rights. He felt that Sati was not supported by Hindu scriptures and that it was a social evil that caused immense suffering to women. Roy, a social reformer and advocate for women’s rights, sought to modernize Indian society by promoting education, equality, and the abolition of oppressive practices like Sati. His efforts contributed to the British passing the Regulation XVII of 1829, which made Sati illegal in India.

(b) Why did Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded Arya Samaj ?

Ans. Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 to promote social, religious, and educational reforms in India. His main objectives were:

1. Revival of Vedic Values: He believed that Hinduism had deviated from the original teachings of the Vedas and sought to return to its pure, monotheistic, and rational foundations.
2. Opposition to Superstitions and Rituals: Swami Dayanand condemned various practices like idol worship, caste discrimination, child marriage, and the rigid priestly control over religious life. He advocated for rational thinking and social equality.
3. Social Reform: He worked towards the upliftment of women, promoting education for women, and fighting against social injustices like untouchability and child marriage.
4. Educational Focus: Arya Samaj emphasized modern education, scientific inquiry, and moral values rooted in the Vedic tradition.

 

25. Fill in the blanks : 2

The struggle for __________ was carried by Subhash Chandra Bose from Abroad. He found that outbreak of __________ to be a convenient opportunity to smite the blow for freedom of India.

Ans. The struggle for India’s independence was carried by Subhash Chandra Bose from abroad. He found that outbreak of World War II to be a convenient opportunity to smite the blow for freedom of India.

OR

Netaji gave a famous battle cry __________; he promised independence to Indians saying, ‘tum mujhe khoon do main tumhe ajadi dunga’. In March 1944, the __________; was hoisted at Kohima.

 

Ans. Netaji gave a famous battle cry “Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom”; he promised independence to Indians saying, ‘Tum mujhe khoon do, main tumhe azadi dunga’. In March 1944, the Indian National Congress flag was hoisted at Kohima.

26. Why did India has good trade relations with many countries across the sea? 2

Ans. India has had good trade relations with many countries due to its strategic location along major maritime trade routes in the Indian Ocean. Historically, India traded valuable goods like spices and textiles with ancient civilizations in the Middle East, Southeast Asia, and Europe. Cultural and religious exchanges further strengthened these ties. During British colonial rule, India became part of a global trade network. After independence, India continued to foster trade relations through diplomatic efforts and participation in global organizations like the WTO.

OR

Why are the mountain passes important?

Ans. Mountain passes are important for several reasons:

1. Strategic Military Routes: They serve as key routes for armies to move between regions, especially in areas with rugged terrain. Control of mountain passes can be crucial in times of conflict.
2. Trade and Commerce: Passes facilitate trade by connecting different regions, allowing the movement of goods across mountains that would otherwise be difficult to cross. Historically, many trade routes, such as the Silk Road, passed through mountain passes.
3. Cultural Exchange: These routes have historically been pathways for cultural, religious, and social exchanges between different civilizations.
4. Connectivity: In modern times, mountain passes are vital for transportation, linking remote areas with larger cities, and contributing to economic development and access to resources.

 

27. Why does Meghalaya receive more than 200 cm of rainfall per year ? 2

Ans. Meghalaya receives more than 200 cm of rainfall per year due to its geographical location and the influence of the monsoon winds. Several factors contribute to its high rainfall:

1. Orographic Rainfall: Meghalaya, particularly places like Mawsynram and Cherrapunji, is located in the foothills of the Khasi Hills, which intercept the moisture-laden monsoon winds coming from the Bay of Bengal. As the winds rise over the mountains, they cool and condense, resulting in heavy rainfall.
2. Monsoon Winds: The southwest monsoon winds from the Bay of Bengal bring abundant moisture to the region, and the mountains enhance rainfall through orographic lifting.
3. Location: Meghalaya is situated in a tropical region, which typically experiences heavy rainfall during the monsoon season from June to September.

These factors together make Meghalaya one of the wettest places on Earth, with rainfall exceeding 200 cm annually.

OR

Why does Rajasthan receive less than 60 cm of rainfall per year ?

Ans. Rajasthan receives less than 60 cm of rainfall per year due to several factors:

1. Arid and Semi-Arid Climate: Rajasthan is located in the arid and semi-arid regions of India, characterized by dry conditions, particularly in the Thar Desert. Its climate is typically hot and dry with little moisture.
2. Rain Shadow Effect: The Aravalli Range, which runs through Rajasthan, does not effectively block the monsoon winds coming from the southwest. However, by the time the monsoon winds reach Rajasthan, much of the moisture has already been precipitated in the eastern regions of India. This results in reduced rainfall in the western parts.
3. Distance from the Sea: Rajasthan is located far from the coast, and its distance from moisture-laden sea winds further reduces the amount of rainfall it receives.
4. Geographical Features: The vast desert area of Rajasthan lacks natural water bodies, which contributes to the scarcity of rainfall and increases evaporation rates.

 

28. Fill in the blanks : 2

Border roads are constructed along the __________ areas of the country for easy accessibility of goods and other requirements of __________ personnel during the time of war and emergency and for the benefit of the people living in those areas.

 

Ans. Border roads are constructed along the border areas of the country for easy accessibility of goods and other requirements of defense personnel during the time of war and emergency and for the benefit of the people living in those areas.

29. Mention any two advantages of Railways. 2

Ans. Two advantages of railways are:

1. Cost-Effective Transport: Railways are an economical mode of transportation, especially for carrying heavy goods over long distances. They are more energy-efficient compared to road and air transport, reducing the overall cost of goods and services.
2. Environmentally Friendly: Trains produce lower carbon emissions per passenger or ton of freight compared to cars, trucks, and airplanes, making them a more sustainable mode of transport and contributing to the reduction of air pollution.

Nios Last Year Solved Question Paper Social Science 213 Class 10

30. Fill in the blanks : 2

The Chief Minister advises the Governor on the appointment of the __________ of Ministers and allocates __________ to them.

Ans. The Chief Minister advises the Governor on the appointment of the Council of Ministers and allocates portfolios to them.

31. Fill in the blanks : 2

The President is indirectly elected by an __________ which consists of the elected members of both the houses of __________ as well as State Legislative Assemblies.

Ans. The President is indirectly elected by an Electoral College which consists of the elected members of both the houses of Parliament as well as State Legislative Assemblies.

32. Explain any two powers of President of India.  2

Ans. Two powers of the President of India are:

1. Executive Power: The President holds executive power in India, which includes the appointment of the Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers, Governors of States, and other key officials. The President also has the authority to dissolve the Lok Sabha and call for general elections.
2. Legislative Power: The President plays a vital role in the legislative process. All bills passed by Parliament require the President’s assent to become laws. The President can also summon, prorogue, and dissolve the Lok Sabha, and can address both houses of Parliament. Additionally, the President can issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session, which have the force of law.

33. Fill in the blanks : 2

The __________ issues the Proclamation of Emergency only when decision of the Union Cabinet to that effect is communicated to her/him in __________.

 

Ans. The President issues the Proclamation of Emergency only when the decision of the Union Cabinet to that effect is communicated to him in writing.

34. Answer in one or two words : 2

Name the group as per definitions given below :

• Organized group of the people which seeks to promote their specific motives.

Ans. An organized group of people that seeks to promote their specific motives is called a Pressure Group.

Pressure groups are formed to influence public policy and decision-making in favor of their interests or goals. These groups can include trade unions, business associations, environmental groups, or political advocacy organizations, and they often use lobbying, protests, or other methods to achieve their objectives.

• A group which exerts influence/pressure in strong determined way to produce particular result.

Ans. A group that exerts influence or pressure in a strong, determined way to produce a particular result is called an Interest Group or Pressure Group.

These groups aim to influence public policy, government decisions, or legislation to benefit their specific interests. They use various strategies such as lobbying, advocacy, public demonstrations, and media campaigns to apply pressure on decision-makers and achieve their goals. Examples include trade unions, business lobbies, environmental organizations, and human rights groups.

35. Fill in the blanks : 2

Peace and __________ are inseparable. Combined together, it is a condition where individuals, institutions, regions, nations and the __________ move ahead without any threat.

 

Ans. Peace and security are inseparable. Combined together, it is a condition where individuals, institutions, regions, nations, and the world move ahead without any threat.

SECTION – B

36. Write two events which marked the beginning of the Modern Age. 2

Ans. The Renaissance (14th to 17th Century): The Renaissance was a period of cultural revival in Europe, focusing on the rediscovery of classical Greek and Roman knowledge. It led to significant advancements in art, science, philosophy, and literature, challenging medieval norms and promoting humanism, thus laying the foundation for modern thinking and innovation.

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The Industrial Revolution (18th to 19th Century): The Industrial Revolution marked a major shift from agrarian economies to industrialized societies, beginning in Britain. It brought about innovations in manufacturing, transportation, and technology, transforming economies, societies, and global trade, and is considered a pivotal moment in the development of the modern world.

37. Why did British invest for improvement in transport in India ? Give two reasons. 2

Ans. The British invested in improving transportation in India for the following two reasons:

1. Economic Exploitation: The British wanted to efficiently transport raw materials from the interior of India to coastal ports for export to Britain. Improved railways and roads allowed faster and cheaper movement of goods, such as cotton, tea, and minerals, which were vital to Britain’s industrial economy.
2. Military Control and Administration: The British needed an efficient transportation network to maintain control over their vast colonial territory. Railways and roads allowed quick movement of troops, supplies, and officials across India, ensuring better governance, suppression of revolts, and faster communication during emergencies.

OR

Why did British create a class of English educated in India ? Give two reasons.

Ans. The British created a class of English-educated Indians for the following two reasons:

1. Administrative Efficiency: The British needed a class of educated Indians to assist in the administration and functioning of the colonial government. By teaching English and Western education, they created a workforce of clerks, officers, and lower-level administrators who could help manage and implement British policies in India.
2. Cultural Control and Political Loyalty: Educating Indians in English and Western values helped create a class that would be loyal to British rule, thereby reducing resistance. This group, often seen as a bridge between the British rulers and the native population, could be influenced to support British interests, acting as intermediaries who would promote colonial ideologies.

 

38. Describe the importance of human rights in Indian Constitution. 2

Ans. Human rights are fundamental to the Indian Constitution, ensuring the dignity, equality, and freedom of all individuals. Part III of the Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights, which are essential for protecting citizens from discrimination and abuse. These rights include the right to equality, freedom of speech, protection of life and liberty, and freedom from exploitation, providing legal safeguards against arbitrary state actions.

Additionally, the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) guide the government to ensure social, economic, and cultural rights, aiming to reduce inequality and promote welfare, though they are not legally enforceable. The Constitution also includes special provisions to protect the rights of minorities and marginalized communities, ensuring their social justice.

The judiciary plays a crucial role in safeguarding human rights, using its power of judicial review to strike down laws or executive actions that violate fundamental rights. In this way, human rights are central to India’s democratic framework and governance.

 OR

Describe any two Fundamental Duties.

Ans. Two Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens, as outlined in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, are:

1. Respect for the National Flag and Anthem: It is the duty of every citizen to show reverence to the National Flag and National Anthem. This reflects the respect for national symbols and fosters a sense of patriotism and unity.
2. To Promote Harmony and the Spirit of Common Brotherhood: Citizens are expected to promote a sense of unity and brotherhood among all people, transcending religious, linguistic, regional, and cultural diversities. This duty aims to strengthen social cohesion and national integration.

 

39. Explain any two qualifications of a Governor of an Indian State. 2

Ans. Two qualifications for becoming a Governor of an Indian State are:

1. Citizenship: The person must be a citizen of India. This ensures that the Governor is a national of the country and has a vested interest in the welfare and governance of the state.
2. Age: The person must be at least 35 years of age. This age requirement ensures that the Governor has the maturity and experience necessary to handle the responsibilities and challenges that come with the role of a state’s head of administration.

OR

Explain any two powers of Chief Minister of a State.

Ans. Two powers of the Chief Minister of a state in India are:

1. Executive Powers: The Chief Minister is the head of the state government and exercises executive powers. They appoint ministers, allocate portfolios, and direct the functioning of various departments. The Chief Minister is responsible for the overall administration and governance of the state.
2. Advisory Role to the Governor: The Chief Minister advises the Governor on important matters, such as the appointment of ministers and the dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly. The Governor is bound to act according to the advice of the Chief Minister, as per the democratic process, ensuring that the state’s governance reflects the will of the elected government.

40. Explain the number of judges including Chief Justice in Supreme Court of India. 2

Ans. The Supreme Court of India consists of a total of 34 judges, including the Chief Justice of India (CJI). This number is defined by the President of India, who can increase or decrease the number of judges through a law passed by Parliament.

The Chief Justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court, and the remaining judges are called Justices. These judges are appointed by the President, based on recommendations made by the Chief Justice and a collegium of senior judges. The role of the Supreme Court is to interpret the Constitution, hear appeals, and resolve disputes, acting as the highest judicial authority in the country.

41. How do Political Parties help in running democratic processes ? 2

Ans. Political parties play a crucial role in running democratic processes by performing the following key functions:

1. Representation: Political parties represent various sections of society, ensuring that different interests and viewpoints are heard in the political process. They bring together people with common interests and present their concerns to the government.
2. Formation of Government: In a democracy, political parties contest elections and, based on their performance, form the government. The party that wins the majority of seats in the legislature is tasked with forming the government, and its leader becomes the head of the government (e.g., Prime Minister or Chief Minister).
3. Policy Formulation: Political parties formulate policies and manifestos that reflect their vision for the country or state. These policies guide the decisions of elected representatives and contribute to the direction of governance.

Nios Last Year Solved Question Paper Social Science 213 Class 10

42. Describe the condition of Italy on the eve of Renaissance in 14^th century. 3

Ans. On the eve of the Renaissance in the 14th century, Italy was experiencing significant social, political, and economic changes that set the stage for the cultural revival of the Renaissance:

1. Fragmented Political Structure: Italy was not a unified country but was divided into numerous independent city-states, such as Florence, Venice, Milan, and Rome. These city-states were often governed by powerful families (like the Medici in Florence) or oligarchies, leading to competition and rivalry. This fragmentation, however, fostered political stability within each state, allowing for the growth of art, culture, and intellectual pursuits.
2. Economic Growth: Italy’s strategic location in the Mediterranean made it a hub for trade and commerce, particularly during the late Middle Ages. Italian cities, especially Venice and Genoa, were major centers of trade between Europe, Asia, and Africa. The wealth generated from trade, banking (e.g., the Medici Bank), and manufacturing helped fund the patronage of artists, architects, and scholars during the Renaissance.
   

   Nios Last Year Solved Question Paper Social Science 213 Class 10

3. Cultural Flourishing: Italy had inherited a rich classical tradition from Ancient Rome and Greece. In the 14th century, the Italian intellectual movement began to rediscover and revive classical knowledge, arts, and philosophy. The works of ancient philosophers, mathematicians, and artists began to influence the thinking of scholars and artists, leading to the intellectual transformation that defined the Renaissance.
4. Decline of Feudalism: The feudal system, which had dominated Europe during the Middle Ages, was in decline by the 14th century. As urban centers grew, a new middle class of merchants, bankers, and artisans emerged, contributing to the weakening of feudal social structures and the rise of a more dynamic, economically focused society.
   

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5. Impact of the Black Death: The Black Death (1347-1351) had a profound effect on Italy, as it decimated populations and caused widespread social upheaval. However, the aftermath of the plague led to economic restructuring and a renewed interest in human life, individualism, and achievement, which later became central themes of the Renaissance.

Overall, the 14th century in Italy was marked by economic prosperity, political fragmentation, and a cultural revival that laid the foundation for the Renaissance, a period of immense artistic, intellectual, and scientific achievement.

43. Describe the rise of Germany as a potent rival of England before the First World War. 3

Ans. The rise of Germany as a potent rival to England before the First World War was a result of a combination of factors in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, which transformed Germany into a major industrial and military power, challenging Britain’s dominance in Europe and globally.

1. Unification of Germany (1871): Germany’s unification in 1871 under the leadership of Otto von Bismarck significantly altered the balance of power in Europe. The creation of a strong, centralized German Empire made it a formidable player in European politics. Before this, Germany had been divided into several smaller states, but with unification, it became a united, cohesive force.
2. Industrialization: By the late 19th century, Germany underwent rapid industrialization, which boosted its economic power. The German economy grew at an unprecedented rate, surpassing Britain in certain industries, such as steel and chemicals. The rise of a powerful industrial base allowed Germany to produce advanced weapons, machinery, and consumer goods, challenging Britain’s economic and technological dominance.
   

   Nios Last Year Solved Question Paper Social Science 213 Class 10

3. Naval Rivalry and the Anglo-German Arms Race: The British Empire had long dominated the seas, but Germany’s naval expansion, led by Kaiser Wilhelm II, began to challenge British supremacy. The German Imperial Navy, under the leadership of Admiral Alfred von Tirpitz, sought to rival the British Royal Navy by building a modern fleet. This led to a naval arms race, with Britain increasing its naval construction and striving to maintain a “two-power standard” (the ability to defeat any two navies combined). The competition for naval superiority created a tense and hostile relationship between Germany and Britain.                         https:/product-category/nios-exam
4. Colonial Ambitions: While Britain had a vast colonial empire, Germany sought to establish its own overseas colonies in Africa, Asia, and the Pacific. Germany’s pursuit of colonies led to friction with Britain, which was already entrenched in global imperialism. The “Scramble for Africa” further exacerbated tensions, as both nations competed for territorial control, particularly in East Africa and other parts of the continent.

In summary, Germany’s unification, industrial growth, naval expansion, and colonial ambitions made it a formidable rival to Britain before World War I. The competition between the two nations in economic, military, and imperial terms fueled tensions, contributing to the broader conflicts that eventually erupted into World War I.

 

44. Explain the causes for early resistance movements against British rule in India before the Revolt of 1857. 3

Ans. Before the Revolt of 1857, several resistance movements emerged against British rule in India due to a combination of economic, social, political, and cultural causes:

1. Economic Exploitation: British policies like the Permanent Settlement and Ryotwari System overtaxed Indian farmers, leading to widespread poverty and unrest. The British also drained India’s wealth by promoting the export of raw materials and importing British-manufactured goods, harming local industries.
2. Cultural and Religious Interference: The British introduced reforms like the abolition of Sati and efforts to regulate practices like female infanticide, which, although well-meaning, were seen by many as an attack on traditional customs. The spread of Christianity through missionary activities also created tensions.
3. Administrative Changes: The introduction of English as the language of administration and legal reforms disrupted traditional systems. The imposition of foreign laws alienated many Indians, particularly the educated classes.
4. Military Grievances: The sepoys in the British army faced harsh treatment, poor pay, and cultural insensitivity. The greased cartridge controversy sparked a revolt among soldiers.
5. Loss of Political Independence: The annexation of princely states through policies like the Doctrine of Lapse stripped local rulers of their power, fueling resentment.

These factors, combined with widespread dissatisfaction, contributed to early uprisings and set the stage for the 1857 rebellion.

OR

Explain the causes for the revolt of Poligars of Madras.

Ans. The Poligar Revolts in the Madras region (1799-1805) were primarily caused by a combination of economic, political, and cultural factors.

1. British Revenue Policies: The British introduced harsh land revenue systems like the Ryotwari system, which directly taxed farmers without intermediaries. This burdened the local peasants and Poligars (local chieftains), who were responsible for maintaining order and collecting taxes. The high taxes and direct control led to widespread discontent.
2. Annexation and Loss of Power: The British aimed to dismantle the traditional Poligar system by annexing territories and replacing local rulers with British-appointed officials. This reduction in the Poligars’ power and prestige led to resentment and rebellion.
3. Cultural and Religious Interference: The British introduced new legal and educational systems, including the imposition of English as the administrative language. This was perceived as a threat to local traditions and customs, leading to further opposition.
4. Military Defeats: The British military defeats of the Poligars, such as the execution of Veerapandia Kattabomman, demoralized the resistance leaders, but also inspired continued resistance.

The revolt ultimately failed due to the superior British military, but it marked an important chapter in early resistance to British rule in South India.

45. Examine the significance of Vande Matram in nationalist movement of India. 3

Ans. “Vande Mataram”, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1882, became a powerful symbol in India’s nationalist movement. The song, from his novel Anandamath, invoked the image of Bharat Mata (Mother India), stirring deep emotional and patriotic feelings among Indians. Its call to “Vande Mataram” or “I bow to thee, Mother,” resonated with people from diverse regions, languages, and religions, fostering unity and a shared sense of national identity.

The song gained prominence during the Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908), as a rallying cry against British colonial rule. It was sung at Congress sessions and nationalist gatherings, symbolizing resistance and the struggle for self-rule. It also became a central element in the Indian National Congress’s efforts to mobilize mass support for independence.

Though “Vande Mataram” faced controversy, especially among Muslim leaders due to its Hindu symbolism, its significance in the freedom struggle remained undiminished. It served as a tool for political mobilization and a rallying point for anti-colonial protests.

Today, “Vande Mataram” remains a national song, recognized for its emotional and cultural significance, continuing to evoke patriotism and pride in the Indian spirit of independence.

OR

How did the regional organizations convert into national organization during Colonial India ?

Ans. The transformation of regional organizations into national organizations in colonial India was a gradual process that occurred due to growing political awareness and the need for a united resistance against British rule.

Initially, India’s political activities were localized, with regional organizations like the Bengal Native Association and Bombay Native General Association, focusing on local issues and social reforms. However, the Revolt of 1857 highlighted the need for unity, though it was suppressed, leading to stronger resistance against British policies.

Nios Last Year Solved Question Paper Social Science 213 Class 10

This shift led to the formation of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1885, aiming to unite leaders from across India to address national concerns. Regional organizations, such as the Madras Native Association and Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, gradually aligned with national movements and became branches of the INC, spreading nationalist ideas.

Economic exploitation under British rule, along with social reform movements like the Brahmo Samaj and Prarthana Samaj, strengthened national consciousness. Leaders from different regions, such as Dadabhai Naoroji and Lala Lajpat Rai, connected regional issues to the national agenda. The Swadeshi Movement (1905) and Non-Cooperation Movement (1920) further consolidated this national unity.

Thus, regional organizations played a vital role in uniting India into a single national movement, paving the way for independence.

46. Analyse any three aspects of village roads. 3

Ans. Village roads are an essential part of rural infrastructure and play a significant role in improving the quality of life in rural India. Here are three important aspects of village roads:

1. Connectivity and Accessibility:

Village roads provide vital links between rural areas and urban centers. They enable easier movement of people to nearby markets, schools, healthcare facilities, and government offices. This increased connectivity helps in reducing isolation and improving access to basic services, fostering economic, social, and educational growth in rural areas.

2. Economic Development:

The development of village roads directly impacts the rural economy. Improved roads facilitate the efficient transportation of agricultural products, handicrafts, and other goods to local and regional markets, reducing transportation costs and ensuring better prices for farmers and producers. Access to urban areas also brings in resources, technology, and employment opportunities that contribute to the overall economic growth of villages.

3. Social and Cultural Benefits:

Village roads enhance social integration by linking rural communities with larger towns and cities. They encourage cultural exchange and interaction, provide access to educational and healthcare facilities, and allow for participation in festivals and social events. This connectivity fosters a sense of community and promotes the sharing of knowledge, resources, and ideas between different regions.

In summary, village roads are crucial for promoting economic growth, improving accessibility, and enhancing social cohesion in rural India.

47. Explain any three steps of Indian Government for the Women Empowerment. 3

Ans. Here are three steps taken by the Indian Government for women empowerment:

1. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP): Launched in 2015, this scheme aims to address gender-based discrimination and improve the welfare of the girl child. It focuses on education and creating awareness about the importance of gender equality.
2. Women Helpline Scheme: This initiative provides 24×7 emergency response services for women affected by violence. Women in distress can seek support and guidance through a toll-free helpline.
3. Stand-Up India Scheme: Introduced in 2016, this scheme encourages women entrepreneurs by providing loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore for setting up businesses, promoting financial independence.

OR

Explain the need for Sustainable Development.

Ans. Sustainable development is essential to balance economic growth, environmental protection, and social well-being. Key reasons include:

1. Resource Conservation: It ensures the sustainable use of natural resources to meet present needs without compromising future generations’ ability to fulfill their needs.
2. Environmental Protection: Sustainable practices help reduce pollution, combat climate change, and preserve biodiversity, ensuring a healthy environment.
3. Social Equity: It promotes inclusive growth by reducing poverty, improving access to education and healthcare, and ensuring fair opportunities for all.

By focusing on long-term development goals, it ensures a harmonious and resilient future for humanity and the planet.

48. Following four places related with transportation facilities in India are marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D) on the given outline map of India. Identify these places with the help of the following information and write their correct names:

 

(A) An International Airport in India                                  (B) A port

(C) A city on Golden Quadrilateral                                       (D) A city on North South corridor                             4

 

Ans. ·  A (An International Airport in India): Located in the northeast, likely Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport, Kolkata.

• B (A Port): Located in the southwest along the coastline, likely Cochin Port, Kerala.
• C (A City on the Golden Quadrilateral): Positioned centrally, likely Bengaluru (Bangalore).
• D (A City on the North-South Corridor): Situated centrally in the north-south axis, likely Nagpur, Maharashtra.

 

Note : This question is for visually impaired candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 48.

(A) Name one international airport in Punjab

(B) Name one port in Kerala

(C) Name Northernmost city on Golden Quadrilateral

(D) Name Southernmost city on North South corridor

Ans. (A) Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport (Amritsar)
(B) Kochi Port (Cochin Port)
(C) Delhi (Northernmost city on Golden Quadrilateral)
(D) Kanyakumari (Southernmost city on the North-South Corridor)

49. On the given outline map of India locate and label the following : 4

(A) River Kaveri

(B) Cardamom Hills

(C) Area of Gujarat receiving less than 60 cm rainfall per annum

(D) Chhota Nagpur Plateau

Ans.

Here’s how you can label the locations on the map:

1. River Kaveri (A):
   • Locate Southern India.
   • Mark the Kaveri River flowing through Tamil Nadu and Karnataka, ending in the Bay of Bengal.
2. Cardamom Hills (B):
   • These are part of the Western Ghats.
   • Mark them in Kerala, near the Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary in the Idukki district.
3. Area of Gujarat receiving less than 60 cm rainfall (C):
   • Mark the Kutch region in northwestern Gujarat, which is an arid area.
4. Chhota Nagpur Plateau (D):
   • This is located in Jharkhand.
   • Mark the region near Ranchi, which is the central area of the plateau.

Question for visually impaired.

Write any four features of Eastern Ghats.

Ans. Here are four features of the Eastern Ghats:

1. Geographical Spread: The Eastern Ghats run along the eastern coast of India, passing through Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and parts of Karnataka.
2. Discontinuous Range: Unlike the Western Ghats, the Eastern Ghats are not a continuous chain of hills and are interrupted by major rivers like the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri.
3. Elevation: The Eastern Ghats are relatively lower in elevation compared to the Western Ghats, with peaks like Arma Konda (1680 m) being the highest.
4. Biodiversity: The Eastern Ghats are home to rich biodiversity, including tropical deciduous forests and wildlife, but they face deforestation and habitat loss issues.

5. Explain the powers of Supreme Court of India. 6

Ans. The Supreme Court of India has extensive powers as the highest judicial authority in the country. Its powers include:

1. Judicial Review: It can review the constitutionality of laws and executive actions, ensuring they do not violate the Constitution.
2. Original Jurisdiction: It has the authority to resolve disputes between the Union and states or between states.
3. Appellate Jurisdiction: It hears appeals from lower courts in civil, criminal, or constitutional cases.
4. Advisory Jurisdiction: The President can seek its advice on legal or constitutional matters.
5. Guardian of Fundamental Rights: It can issue writs to protect citizens’ fundamental rights.
6. Supervisory Powers: It supervises lower courts to ensure justice.

OR

Explain the powers of Prime Minister of India.

Ans.

The Prime Minister of India holds significant powers as the head of the government. Key powers include:

1. Executive Powers: The Prime Minister leads the Union Council of Ministers, allocates portfolios, and ensures coordination among ministries.
2. Policy Making: Plays a central role in formulating and implementing government policies and programs.
3. Legislative Role: Represents the government in Parliament, introduces key bills, and ensures the passage of policies.
4. Advisory Role: Advises the President on crucial matters like appointing ministers and dissolving the Lok Sabha.
5. International Representation: Represents India in global forums, negotiates treaties, and manages foreign relations.
6. Crisis Leadership: Directs the government during national emergencies or crises.

7. Explain the role of United Nations Organisation. 6

Ans. The United Nations Organisation (UNO) plays a vital role in maintaining global peace, security, and development. Key roles include:

1. Peacekeeping and Conflict Resolution: The UNO deploys peacekeeping missions and mediates conflicts to prevent wars and promote stability.
2. Human Rights Protection: It works to uphold human rights worldwide through bodies like the Human Rights Council and declarations such as the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
3. Humanitarian Aid: The UNO provides assistance during natural disasters, famines, and conflicts through agencies like UNICEF, WFP, and UNHCR.
4. Development Programs: It promotes global development through initiatives like the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and agencies like UNDP and WHO.
5. Environmental Protection: The UNO addresses climate change and environmental issues through bodies like UNEP.
6. Global Cooperation: It fosters international dialogue and cooperation to address common challenges.

OR

Explain the role of Non-Alignment Movement.

Ans.

The Non-Alignment Movement (NAM) played a crucial role during the Cold War and continues to advocate for peace and development. Its key roles include:

1. Promoting Sovereignty: NAM supports the independence of nations by opposing colonialism, imperialism, and foreign interference.
2. Neutrality in the Cold War: It allowed member countries to avoid alignment with the power blocs led by the USA or the USSR, promoting non-alignment.
3. Advocating Peace: NAM emphasized peaceful coexistence, disarmament, and resolving disputes through dialogue.
4. Supporting Development: It focused on addressing economic disparities and advocating for equitable global development.
5. Platform for the Global South: NAM provides a voice to developing nations to collectively address global issues like trade, climate change, and human rights.

Nios Last Year Solved Question Paper Social Science 213 Class 10 .

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